A football player comes into the clinic exhibiting numbness in his UE's and some difficulty and pain while taking deep breaths. He recalls having a "rough game with a lot of hard hits" the weekend before and thought that his symptoms would subside but they haven't. What region of the spinal cord would you be most likely to investigate first?

A football player comes into the clinic exhibiting numbness in his UE's and some difficulty and pain while taking deep breaths. He recalls having a "rough game with a lot of hard hits" the weekend before and thought that his symptoms would subside but they haven't. What region of the spinal cord would you be most likely to investigate first?



  • Cervical
  • Thoracic
  • Lumbar
  • Sacral



Answer: Cervical

A seven-year-old boy comes into your pediatric outpatient physical therapy clinic. He had been recently diagnosed with cerebral palsy. He often walks on his toes with a scissor gate. He has also developed scoliosis. What structure is not associated with this condition?

A seven-year-old boy comes into your pediatric outpatient physical therapy clinic. He had been recently diagnosed with cerebral palsy. He often walks on his toes with a scissor gate. He has also developed scoliosis. What structure is not associated with this condition?


A. Primary motor cortex

B. Basal ganglia

C. Medulla oblongata

D. Cerebellum

E. White matter


Answer: C. Medulla oblongata

What is the name of the pathway that projects dopamine neurons of the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area (VTA) to the striatum that is associated with Parkinson's disease?

What is the name of the pathway that projects dopamine neurons of the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area (VTA) to the striatum that is associated with Parkinson's disease?


A. Direct pathway

B. Nigrostriatal pathway

C. VTA pathway

D. Indirect pathway


Answer: B. Nigrostriatal pathway

A 46 year old patient comes into your clinic. He was just recently diagnosed with ALS. He presents symptoms of muscle weakness in both upper and lower limbs, and with spasticity predominantly in his right arm. Which of the following is the most likely to be affected in this patient?

A 46 year old patient comes into your clinic. He was just recently diagnosed with ALS. He presents symptoms of muscle weakness in both upper and lower limbs, and with spasticity predominantly in his right arm. Which of the following is the most likely to be affected in this patient?


A) Amygdala
B) Lower Motor Neurons
C) Hypothalamus
D) Upper Motor Neurons


Answer: D) Upper Motor Neurons

Kate, a 5-year old female, have recently been diagnosed with Cerebral Palsy. Upon going over chart you notice that her MRI result show some abnormalities in her Cerebellum. She is very unsteady when she walks and have a hard time with movements that need a lot of control such as, writing. Based on the information provided, what type of Cerebral Palsy does Kate have?

Kate, a 5-year old female, have recently been diagnosed with Cerebral Palsy. Upon going over chart you notice that her MRI result show some abnormalities in her Cerebellum. She is very unsteady when she walks and have a hard time with movements that need a lot of control such as, writing. Based on the information provided, what type of Cerebral Palsy does Kate have?



  • Spastic
  • Ataxic
  • Dyskinetic
  • Mixed



Answer: Ataxic

A 40 year old male comes into your neuro clinic, complaining of recent falls in the past two weeks. As you evaluate your client, you notice that there is a conflict between visual and vestibular inputs. The client presents with pressing one arm down and pushing themselves to the other side, causing a tilted posture in sitting and standing. What disorder are they presenting with?

A 40 year old male comes into your neuro clinic, complaining of recent falls in the past two weeks. As you evaluate your client, you notice that there is a conflict between visual and vestibular inputs. The client presents with pressing one arm down and pushing themselves to the other side, causing a tilted posture in sitting and standing. What disorder are they presenting with?



  • Pusher's syndrome
  • Epilepsy
  • Dystonia
  • Spinal Cord Injury



Answer: Pusher's syndrome

Choose the best definition of depression from the options listed below.

Choose the best definition of depression from the options listed below.


A. Feeling blue or sad for the day

B. A mood disorder that does not affect how you think, feel and function

C. A serious depressive mood disorder that causes severe symptoms that affects how you think feel, think and function and that lasts for at least 2 weeks

D. A mild depressive mood disorder that makes you feel sad


Answer: C. A serious depressive mood disorder that causes severe symptoms that affects how you think feel, think and function and that lasts for at least 2 weeks

Which of the following abnormalities is NOT characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?

Which of the following abnormalities is NOT characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?


A. Shrinking of cerebral cortex

B. Disintegration of microtubules by toxic beta-amyloid proteins

C. Enlargement of ventricles

D. Death of neuron cells and synapses


Answer: B. Disintegration of microtubules by toxic beta-amyloid proteins

Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune inflammatory demyelinating disease. Compared to healthy controls, an individual with MS has which of the following?

Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune inflammatory demyelinating disease. Compared to healthy controls, an individual with MS has which of the following?




A. Decreased regulatory T cell function in the peripheral blood
B. Increased numbers of activated T cells passing into the brain
C. Decreased numbers of helper T cells in the spinal cord
D. Both A & B


Answer: D. Both A & B

A 54 year old male came for his yearly physical and has complained of recently having a difficult time reaching for the telephone when it rings and even picking up the telephone once he is able to reach it. He has no prior history of this sort of weakness so you ask him if anyone in his family also experienced this sort of trouble as they began to age. He explains to you that his father did start to have a hard time performing tasks and movements with his extremities and eventually had a very difficult time speaking, breathing, and eating. You think you have an idea of what disease this man could have been inherited and genetic testing is done showing an autosomal dominant genetic mutation. What is the most likely result?

A 54 year old male came for his yearly physical and has complained of recently having a difficult time reaching for the telephone when it rings and even picking up the telephone once he is able to reach it. He has no prior history of this sort of weakness so you ask him if anyone in his family also experienced this sort of trouble as they began to age. He explains to you that his father did start to have a hard time performing tasks and movements with his extremities and eventually had a very difficult time speaking, breathing, and eating. You think you have an idea of what disease this man could have been inherited and genetic testing is done showing an autosomal dominant genetic mutation. What is the most likely result?


A: Sporadic ALS
B: Primary Lateral Sclerosis
C: Familal ALS
D: Post-polio Syndrome


Answer: C: Familal ALS

What are some of the most common symptoms associated with Schizophrenia?

What are some of the most common symptoms associated with Schizophrenia?


A. Numbness/tingling in the lower extremities

B. Burred vision & trouble concentrating

C. Hallucinations, Delusions, & disorganized thinking/speech

D. Loss of balance & dizziness


Answer: C. Hallucinations, Delusions, & disorganized thinking/speech

A 45 year old comes into your clinic because he is having difficulties speaking and swallowing. After reviewing his medical chart you find out he has been diagnosed with Huntington's Disease. Which stage does it seem that your patient is showing symptoms of?

A 45 year old comes into your clinic because he is having difficulties speaking and swallowing. After reviewing his medical chart you find out he has been diagnosed with Huntington's Disease. Which stage does it seem that your patient is showing symptoms of?



a) 1st stage
b) 2nd stage
c) 3rd stage


Answer: c) 3rd stage

A 54 year old client has been coming to your outpatient clinic after having rotator cuff surgery. One afternoon the client mentioned earlier that day they were experiencing weakness, numbness in their face, loss of balance, and slurred speech. Although experiencing these symptoms, the client stated that they went away after an hour. What would best describe these symptoms?

A 54 year old client has been coming to your outpatient clinic after having rotator cuff surgery. One afternoon the client mentioned earlier that day they were experiencing weakness, numbness in their face, loss of balance, and slurred speech. Although experiencing these symptoms, the client stated that they went away after an hour. What would best describe these symptoms?


A. MCA Stroke
B. Transient Ischemic Attack
C. Huntington's Disease
D. Parkinson's Disease


Answer: B. Transient Ischemic Attack

Autism effects the cerebellum in which of the following ways:

Autism effects the cerebellum in which of the following ways:



a.) creating a deviation in size of the cerebellum
b.) decreasing the amount of Purkinje cells
c.) decreasing the strength of dopamine pathways to the prefrontal cortex
d.) all of the above


Answer: d.) all of the above

What does "FAST" in relation to stroke stand for?

What does "FAST" in relation to stroke stand for?




1. F- face drooping, A- arm weakness, S- standing, T- time to go to the hospital

2. F- face drooping, A- arm strength, S- speech difficulty, T- time to go to the hospital

3. F- face drooping, A- arm weakness, S- speech difficulty, T- time to go to the hospital

4. F- fast speech, A- arm strength, S- standing, T- time to go to the hospital


Answer: 3. F- face drooping, A- arm weakness, S- speech difficulty, T- time to go to the hospital

Although there is no definite structure effected by Autism, what are three structures that could have abnormalities with an ASD diagnosis?

Although there is no definite structure effected by Autism, what are three structures that could have abnormalities with an ASD diagnosis?


A.Cerebellum, Brainstem, and Lateral Cortex
B.Frontal Cortex, Amygdala, Cerebellum
C.Amygdala, Hippocampus, Hypothalamus
D.Frontal Cortex, Cerebellum, Thalamus


Answer: B.Frontal Cortex, Amygdala, Cerebellum

From external to internal, what is the correct order of connective tissues?

From external to internal, what is the correct order of connective tissues?


A. Perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium
B. Endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium
C. Epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium
D. Epineurium,, endoneurium, perineurium


Answer: C. Epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium

A 33-year-old female client is referred to your clinic after being diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis (MS). She has chronic symptoms which include constant muscle spasms, fatigue, diplopia, lack of coordination, and issues pertaining to her memory and processing information. The patient was recently provided with a caretaker because she is unable to complete some of her activities of daily living on her own. What form of MS is she diagnosed with?

A 33-year-old female client is referred to your clinic after being diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis (MS). She has chronic symptoms which include constant muscle spasms, fatigue, diplopia, lack of coordination, and issues pertaining to her memory and processing information. The patient was recently provided with a caretaker because she is unable to complete some of her activities of daily living on her own. What form of MS is she diagnosed with?



A. Relapsing Remitting MS
B. Secondary Progressive MS
C. Primary Progressive MS
D. Spinal Cord MS


Answer: C.Primary Progressive MS

When looking at the pathophysiology of the disorder, which is NOT a brain size abnormality commonly seen in a person diagnosed with Schizophrenia?

When looking at the pathophysiology of the disorder, which is NOT a brain size abnormality commonly seen in a person diagnosed with Schizophrenia?



A. An increase in size in the third ventricle
B. A decrease in size in the frontal lobe
C. A decrease in size in the medial temporal lobe
D. An increase in size in the lateral ventricle


Answer: B. Decrease in size in the frontal lobe

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) occurs when the otoconia are displaced from the utricle into the semicircular canal. The semicircular canal is superior to the inner ear, which of the following is not apart of this structure?

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) occurs when the otoconia are displaced from the utricle into the semicircular canal. The semicircular canal is superior to the inner ear, which of the following is not apart of this structure?



A. Horizontal Semicircular Canal
B. Anterior Semicircular Canal
C. Posterior Semicircular Canal
D. Inferior Semicircular Canal


Answer: D. Inferior Semicircular Canal

An individual who has been a patient of your comes to rehab at the nursing home you are working at and they seem to be lost an unable to remember recent events. You ask them to recall the exercises you have been doing fro the previous week however they cannot recall them. Which structure would most likely be affected due to Alzheimer's?

An individual who has been a patient of your comes to rehab at the nursing home you are working at and they seem to be lost an unable to remember recent events. You ask them to recall the exercises you have been doing fro the previous week however they cannot recall them. Which structure would most likely be affected due to Alzheimer's?



A.) Corpus Callosum
B.) Hippocampus
C.) Occipital Lobe
D.) Frontal Lobe


Answer: B. Hippocampus

Your new patient coming in for an evaluation had a stroke in the Middle Cerebral Artery. You know that there could be a variety of symptoms and when you see that the patient has contralateral hemiplegia affecting her right arm and face more so than her right leg, what area of the Middle Cerebral Artery is most likely where the stroke occurred?

Your new patient coming in for an evaluation had a stroke in the Middle Cerebral Artery. You know that there could be a variety of symptoms and when you see that the patient has contralateral hemiplegia affecting her right arm and face more so than her right leg, what area of the Middle Cerebral Artery is most likely where the stroke occurred?



A. Deep branches on the right side
B. Cortical branches on the right side
C. Deep branches on the left side
D. Cortical branches on the left side


Answer: D. Cortical branches on the left side

A client comes into your clinic with a doctors referral of Lateral Medullary Stroke (Wallenburg Syndrome) from atherothrombotic occlusion related ischemia to receive services. The client is 60 years old male with a history of hypertension, smoking and a mostly sedentary lifestyle. He has been having trouble locating the specific point of pain on his body, as well as having trouble with feeling the differences in temperature. Since you have an understanding of the structures commonly affected by Wallenburg Syndrome, you will inform him that the _____ has been affected, and that he should speak to a physician.

A client comes into your clinic with a doctors referral of Lateral Medullary Stroke (Wallenburg Syndrome) from atherothrombotic occlusion related ischemia to receive services. The client is 60 years old male with a history of hypertension, smoking and a mostly sedentary lifestyle. He has been having trouble locating the specific point of pain on his body, as well as having trouble with feeling the differences in temperature. Since you have an understanding of the structures commonly affected by Wallenburg Syndrome, you will inform him that the _____ has been affected, and that he should speak to a physician.



A) Nucleus Ambiguus
B) Solitary Nucleus
C) Efferent nerves to the Dorsal Vagus Nucleus
D) Spinothalamic Tract


Answer: D. Spinothalamic Tract

A 50 year old patient visits your clinic. The patient complains of numbness in half of their face, as well as vertigo and difficultly swallowing. You notice the patients speech is slightly slurred and one eyelid appears to be dropping. What could be the problem?

A 50 year old patient visits your clinic. The patient complains of numbness in half of their face, as well as vertigo and difficultly swallowing. You notice the patients speech is slightly slurred and one eyelid appears to be dropping. What could be the problem?



A. MCA stroke
B. Wallenburg's Syndrome
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. ADHD


Answer: B. Wallenburg's syndrome

You have read the past medical history of a patient coming into the clinic this afternoon. The patient has been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). Which of the following symptoms would you NOT expect to experience when the patient comes in?

You have read the past medical history of a patient coming into the clinic this afternoon. The patient has been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). Which of the following symptoms would you NOT expect to experience when the patient comes in?



A. Inattentive
B. Composed
C. Hyperactive
D. Impulsive


Answer: B. Composed

Your patient comes in to be treated after a having Middle Cerebral Artery stroke. As you speak to your patient, he is able to understand everything you are saying and is nodding his head constantly. However, when the patient tries to speak back, his speech is broken and is not able to fully express how he is feeling. Which lobe do you predict is MOST affected by the stroke?

Your patient comes in to be treated after a having Middle Cerebral Artery stroke. As you speak to your patient, he is able to understand everything you are saying and is nodding his head constantly. However, when the patient tries to speak back, his speech is broken and is not able to fully express how he is feeling. Which lobe do you predict is MOST affected by the stroke?



A. Parietal Lobe
B. Temporal Lobe
C. Frontal Lobe
D. Occipital Lobe


Answer: C. Frontal lobe

A nurse on the neuro floor in an inpatient facility is caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury. The client sustained an injury to the C5 vertebral level as a result of a motor vehicle accident. What is the first spinal nerve that the nurse would expect to be affected?

A nurse on the neuro floor in an inpatient facility is caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury. The client sustained an injury to the C5 vertebral level as a result of a motor vehicle accident. What is the first spinal nerve that the nurse would expect to be affected?



A.C4
B.C5
C. C6
D. C7


Answer: C. C6

List and describe the three abnormal deviations in the spinal curvature, including symptoms, possible causes, and treatment options.

List and describe the three abnormal deviations in the spinal curvature, including symptoms, possible causes, and treatment options.




  1. Kyphosis- extreme thoracic curvature. Caused by congenital spinal deformity. Treatment by bracing. Disks assume a wedge shape
  2. Scoliosis-Lateral spinal curvature. Caused by congenital deformities. Can be painful, but treated by bracing or surgery. Disks assume a wedge shape
  3. Lordosis- Extreme lumbar curvature. Caused by congenital spinal deformity. Symptoms are weakness of the abdominal muscles and lower back pain. Treatment


List and discuss the primary abdominal muscles, explaining how they perform motion in all three planes.

List and discuss the primary abdominal muscles, explaining how they perform motion in all three planes.



• transversus abdominis - the deepest muscle layer. Its main roles are to stabilise the trunk and maintain internal abdominal pressure
• rectus abdominis - slung between the ribs and the pubic bone at the front of the pelvis. When contracting, this muscle has the characteristic bumps or bulges that are commonly called 'the six pack'. The main function of the rectus abdominis is to move the body between the ribcage and the pelvis
• external oblique muscles - these are on each side of the rectus abdominis. The external oblique muscles allow the trunk to twist, but to the opposite side of whichever external oblique is contracting. For example, the right external oblique contracts to turn the body to the left
• internal oblique muscles - these flank the rectus abdominis and are located just inside the hipbones. They operate in the opposite way to the external oblique muscles. For example, twisting the trunk to the left requires the left side internal oblique and the right side external oblique to contract together.

Spinal relaxation phenomenon explains what?

Spinal relaxation phenomenon explains what?



A. inactivity of spinal extensors during full flexion
B. inactivity of spinal flexors during full flexion
C. sit and reach flexibility test
D. yoga


Answer: A. inactivity of spinal extensors during full flexion

Which abdominal muscles cause rotation to the left?

Which abdominal muscles cause rotation to the left?



A. left internal oblique
B. right external oblique
C. left rectus abdominis
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: D. both A and B

What is the most common type of vertebral fracture?

What is the most common type of vertebral fracture?



A. fracture to the coccyx
B. stress fracture of the pars interarticularis
C. cervical fracture
D. none of the above


Answer: B. stress fracture of the pars interarticularis

Which of the following is not true about lordosis?

Which of the following is not true about lordosis?



A. often accompanied by anterior pelvic tilt
B. can be caused by poor abdominal flexibility
C. often accompanies weight gain and pregnancy
D. all of the above are true


Answer: B. can be caused by poor abdominal flexibility

Which statement is not true about the intervertebral discs?

Which statement is not true about the intervertebral discs?



A. act as cushions between the vertebrae
B. account for approximately 1/4 of the height of the spine
C. are responsible for spinal movement due to compression
D. all of the above are true


Answer: D. all of the above are true

List and describe the four quadriceps muscles, including location, actions, and possible injury implications in the case of imbalance.

List and describe the four quadriceps muscles, including location, actions, and possible injury implications in the case of imbalance.



Rectus femoris- Action:extension of the knee.
Vastus lateralis-
Vastus medialis-
Vastus intermedius-
All: extends the knee, attaches distally to the patellar tendon, and inserts on the tibia.
Injury: Will compromise balance in the knee

List the four major ligaments of the knee, describe the location of each and explain the role each one plays in providing stability to the joint.

List the four major ligaments of the knee, describe the location of each and explain the role each one plays in providing stability to the joint.




ACL(anterior cruciate ligament)- located deep within the notch of the distal femur. Resists anterior translation and medial rotation of the tibia, in relation to the femur

PCL(posterior cruciate ligament)- located within the knee joint, originates from the lateral edge of the medial femoral condyle. Prevents the femur from sliding off the anterior edge of the tibia.

MCL(medial collateral ligament)- Located down the inner part of the knee, from the femur to the tibia. Prevents leg from over-extending inward.

LCL (lateral collateral ligament)- Located outside the knee. Keeps the knee stable as it moves through its motion

During walking, which of the following actions is combined to cause supination?

During walking, which of the following actions is combined to cause supination?



A. dorsiflexion; eversion; and abduction
B. dorsiflexion; inversion; and abduction
C. plantar flexion; inversion; and abduction
D. plantar flexion; inversion; and adduction


Answer: D. plantar flexion; inversion; and adduction

Patellofemoral pain syndrome is likely associated with what?

Patellofemoral pain syndrome is likely associated with what?



A. weakness of vastus medialis relative to vastus lateralis
B. weakness of vastus lateralis relative to vastus medialis
C. weakness of biceps femoris relative to semitendinosus
D. weakness of semitendinosus relative to biceps femoris


Answer: A. weakness of vastus medialis relative to vastus lateralis

The medial and lateral collateral ligaments limit which type of knee motion?

The medial and lateral collateral ligaments limit which type of knee motion?



A. knee hyperextension
B. forward and backward sliding of the femur on the tibia during knee flexion and extension
C. lateral knee motion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: C. lateral knee motion

Which of the following statements is true regarding ACL injuries?

Which of the following statements is true regarding ACL injuries?



A. occur more frequently in during player contact
B. occur more frequently during non-contact
C. occurrence is approximately equal between contact and non-contact
D. it is unknown whether contact or non-contact ACL injuries are more frequent


Answer: B. occur more frequently during non-contact

Which of the following statements is true regarding ACL injuries?

Which of the following statements is true regarding ACL injuries?



A. occur more frequently in women than in men
B. occur more frequently in men than in women
C. occurrence is approximately equal between men and women
D. frequency between men and women is sport specific


Answer: A. occur more frequently in women than in men

Which of the following causes hip adduction?

Which of the following causes hip adduction?



A. adductor magnus
B. adductor longus
C. gracilis
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: E. all of the above

Which of the following causes hip abduction?

Which of the following causes hip abduction?



A. gluteus medius
B. gluteus minimus
C. gluteus maximus
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: D. both A and B

Which of the following is the most common of all knee injuries?

Which of the following is the most common of all knee injuries?



A. rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament
B. rupture of the medial collateral ligament
C. tear of the lateral meniscus
D. tear of the medial meniscus


Answer: D. tear of the medial meniscus

Which of the following is/are nonaxial joint(s)?

Which of the following is/are nonaxial joint(s)?



A. tarsometatarsal joint
B. intermetatarsal joint
C. subtalar joint
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: D. both A and B

Which of the following is the most typical cause of ankle sprain?

Which of the following is the most typical cause of ankle sprain?



A. forced inversion of the ankle during landing while the foot is plantar flexed
B. forced eversion of the ankle during landing while the foot is dorsiflexed
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: A. forced inversion of the ankle during landing while the foot is plantar flexed

Which of the following statements is/are true?

Which of the following statements is/are true?



A. When the knee undergoes a significant amount of flexion, it is necessary for the femur to slide forward on the tibia in order to prevent its rolling off of the tibial plateau.
B. During extension, the femur must slide backwards on the tibia.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: C. both A and B

Knee extensors cross the joint ___ to the ___ axis.

Knee extensors cross the joint ___ to the ___ axis.


A. anterior; anteroposterior
B. posterior; anteroposterior
C. anterior; mediolateral
D. posterior; mediolateral


Answer: C. anterior; mediolateral

What is/are the purpose(s) of the patella?

What is/are the purpose(s) of the patella?



A. increase the angle between the tendon and tibia
B. increase the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps
C. to protect the anterior aspect of the knee
D. all of the above


Answer: D. all of the above

Which of the following statements is/are true?

Which of the following statements is/are true?



A. The iliopsoas complex is the major flexor of the hip.
B. Two-joint muscles function more effectively at one joint when the position of the other joint stretches the muscle slightly.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: C. both A and B

Which of the following is not true about pelvic girdle movements?

Which of the following is not true about pelvic girdle movements?



A. position the acetabulum favorably for femoral movement
B. occurs in all 3 planes
C. occurs around the lumbosacral joint
D. all of the above are true


Answer: D. all of the above are true

Which of the following is true regarding electromyography?

Which of the following is true regarding electromyography? 



A. treats muscle injury with electrical impulses
B. measures the electrical activity produced by a muscle
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: D. none of the above

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding vector algebra?

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding vector algebra? 




A. In vector resolution, when a vector is resolved into two components, they are always perpendicular.
B. In vector composition, only perpendicular components can be composed into a resultant.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: A. In vector resolution, when a vector is resolved into two components, they are always perpendicular.

Mechanical stress in the lumbar vertebrae is less than expected because of which of the following structural details?

Mechanical stress in the lumbar vertebrae is less than expected because of which of the following structural details? 



A. bears more weight or force than other vertebrae
B. larger weight-bearing surface area than other vertebrae
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: B. larger weight-bearing surface area than other vertebrae

A free body diagram includes which of the following?

A free body diagram includes which of the following? 



A. sketch of an object, body, or body part being analyzed
B. vectors representations of all forces acting on the system
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: C. both A and B

Which of the following is true regarding volume?

Which of the following is true regarding volume? 



A. units are cm3
B. units are liters
C. directly proportional to mass
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: D. both A and B

Which of the following statements is/are true?

Which of the following statements is/are true? 



A. Increasing the surface area over which a force is distributed increases the amount of stress acting on the surface.
B. Decreasing the surface area over which a force is distributed increases the amount of stress acting on the surface.
C. Both A and B are true.
D. Neither A nor B is true.


Answer: B. Decreasing the surface area over which a force is distributed increases the amount of stress acting on the surface.

Which of the following relationships is correct?

Which of the following relationships is correct? 



A. 1 kg = 2.2 lb
B. 1 lb = 4.45 N
C. both A and B are correct
D. neither A nor B is correct


Answer: C. both A and B are correct

Which of the following statements is true?

Which of the following statements is true? 



A. weight is always a force
B. force is always a weight
C. pressure is synonymous with force
D. pressure is synonymous with weight


Answer: A. weight is always a force

Which of the following defines center of gravity?

Which of the following defines center of gravity? 



A. intersection of the 3 cardinal planes
B. the point around which a body's weight is equally balanced regardless of body position
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B


Answer: C. both A and B

Which of the following is not true about mass?

Which of the following is not true about mass? 



A. quantity of matter
B. changes depending on gravity
C. measurement unit = kg
D. affects force production
E. all of the above are true


Answer: B. changes depending on gravity

Which of the following is not true about weight?

Which of the following is not true about weight? 



A. measurement unit = lb
B. measurement unit = N
C. weight is a force
D. changes depending on gravity
E. all of the above are true


Answer: E. all of the above are true

Which of the following can increase base of support?

Which of the following can increase base of support? 



A. widen stance
B. add more points of contact (i.e. 3-point stance to 4-point stance)
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: C. both A and B

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding postural sway?

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding postural sway? 



A. it affects balance in the elderly
B. it is reduced by widening the BOS to a certain point
C. it is increased by putting one foot in front of the other
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: E. all of the above

What is the importance of segmental center of mass to the lever systems of the human body?

What is the importance of segmental center of mass to the lever systems of the human body?



A. segmental COM will follow a parabolic path when projected
B. segmental COM is the point of resistance (where weight vector is drawn) and therefore determines the length of the resistance arm
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: B. segmental COM is the point of resistance (where weight vector is drawn) and therefore determines the length of the resistance arm

Why do skilled high jumpers lower their COM on the last step?

Why do skilled high jumpers lower their COM on the last step? 



A. to increase time of support between foot and ground
B. to increase vertical velocity at take-off
C. to increase impulse at take-off
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: E. all of the above

What is the proposed advantage of Nautilus resistance equipment over free weights?

What is the proposed advantage of Nautilus resistance equipment over free weights? 



A. resistance varies over the range of motion with Nautilus equipment
B. resistance varies over the range of motion with free weights
C. muscle force requirements change over the range of motion with Nautilus equipment
D. none of the above is advantageous


Answer: A. resistance varies over the range of motion with Nautilus equipment

Which of the following is/are true regarding center of mass?

Which of the following is/are true regarding center of mass? 



A. in a spherical ball with evenly distributed mass, it is in the exact center
B. it is the point around which a body's weight is equally balanced regardless of body position
C. it may be located outside an object or body
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: E. all of the above

Which statement is true regarding moment arm?

Which statement is true regarding moment arm? 



A. Moment arm is largest when the angle of pull on a bone is 90°.
B. Changes in moment arm directly affect joint muscle torque.
C. For torque to remain constant, more force must be produced when moment arm decreases.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above


Answer: E. all of the above

Which of the following is/are true regarding a force couple?

Which of the following is/are true regarding a force couple? 



A. created by equal forces on opposite sides of an axis
B. created by forces acting in the same angular direction
C. both A and B
D. none of the above


Answer: C. both A and B

Which of the following will benefit mobility?

Which of the following will benefit mobility? 



A. increase mass
B. increase base of support
C. increase friction
D. raise center of gravity


Answer: D. raise center of gravity

In which of the following situations is maximal stability desirable?

In which of the following situations is maximal stability desirable? 



A. a swimmer's starting position on the blocks before a race
B. a Sumo wrestler's crouched defensive stance
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B


Answer: B. a Sumo wrestler's crouched defensive stance

The amount of torque which must by generated by the biceps brachii at the elbow in order to maintain the arm in a particular position is 50 Nm. If the biceps attaches to the radius at a perpendicular distance of 3 cm from the joint center at the elbow, how much force must the muscle produce?

The amount of torque which must by generated by the biceps brachii at the elbow in order to maintain the arm in a particular position is 50 Nm. If the biceps attaches to the radius at a perpendicular distance of 3 cm from the joint center at the elbow, how much force must the muscle produce? 



A. 1667 N
B. 17 N
C. 150 N
D. 1.5 N


Answer: A. 1667 N

Which of the following affects the force-generating capability of a muscle?

Which of the following affects the force-generating capability of a muscle? 



A. the muscle length and cross-sectional area
B. the angle and distance from the joint center of the tendon attachment to bone
C. the velocity of muscle shortening
D. all of the above


Answer: D. all of the above

Which of the following must be true for an object to be in a state of static equilibrium?

Which of the following must be true for an object to be in a state of static equilibrium? 



A. the sum of all vertical forces acting on the object must be equal to zero
B. the sum of all horizontal forces acting on the object must be equal to zero
C. the sum of all torques acting on the object must be equal to zero
D. all of the above must be true


Answer: D. all of the above must be true

Which of the following is a characteristic of torque?

Which of the following is a characteristic of torque? 



A. it is a vector quantity
B. it is characterized by magnitude
C. it is characterized by direction
D. all of the above


Answer: D. all of the above

A 30 kg child sits on the right end of a see-saw 1 m from the axis. If a 20 kg child sits on the left end of the see-saw 2 m from the axis, what will happen?

A 30 kg child sits on the right end of a see-saw 1 m from the axis. If a 20 kg child sits on the left end of the see-saw 2 m from the axis, what will happen? 



A. the see-saw will tilt to the right
B. the see-saw will tilt to the left
C. the see-saw will balance
D. need more information to predict outcome


Answer: B. the see-saw will tilt to the left

What is traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2?

What is traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2?



Answer: Hangman's Fracture: Hyper extension, pedicles are fractured off, C2 endplate can be ripped off

What is a cervical wedge fracture?

What is a cervical wedge fracture?



Answer: Hyperflexion trauma, body of the vertebra becomes a wegde shape- the anterior portion will be shorter than the posterior portion

What is a clay shoveler's fracture?

What is a clay shoveler's fracture?



Answer: The spinous fractures off the lamina. Caused by sudden, unexpected contraction of the lower neck muscles- usually C6, C7, T1

What is a Jefferson Fracture?

What is a Jefferson Fracture?



C1 fracture- burst styled fracture caused by compression (-Y) forces. Highly unstable. Treated by immobilization. Can be fatal.

What are the three types of Dens fractures?

What are the three types of Dens fractures?



Type 1: An oblique fracture through the superior portion of the dens

Type 2: A horizontal fracture separating the dens from the rest of C2 - Most difficult to heal

Type 3: A fracture that separates the dens, and part of the body from the rest of C2.

Why are protraction/retractions beneficial for the neck?

Why are protraction/retractions beneficial for the neck?



Answer:

Protraction: Sub occip will contract and the extensors will elongate

Retraction: Sub occip will elongate while the extensors contract

Why does synovium create more fluid following a whiplash incident?

Why does synovium create more fluid following a whiplash incident?



Answer: The synovium will become aggregated following a whiplash injury. It may take a few days before symptoms appear, as the fluid will slowly build within the joint, then add stress to the joint capsule

What is the dual action of the SCM?

What is the dual action of the SCM?



Answer: Extend the upper cervical region, and flex the lower cervicals. It also translates the head forward.

What can be said of the paired motion of the upper and lower cervical complexes?

What can be said of the paired motion of the upper and lower cervical complexes?



Answer: They are always opposite- ie. If lower cervical is rotating to the left, it is also lateral bending to the left. At the same time, the upper cervical is rotating to the left, but it is lateral bending to the right Upper cervical will also go into extension

The class notes report that Farfan produced torsional disc failure on intact vertebrae with 20 degrees of Y axis rotation. Why is this difficult to produce in vivo?

The class notes report that Farfan produced torsional disc failure on intact vertebrae with 20 degrees of Y axis rotation. Why is this difficult to produce in vivo?



a. the annular fibers are stronger than that
b. intact facet joints won't allow that degree of rotation


Answer: b. intact facet joints won't allow that degree of rotation